An orthodox friend of mine who is now just re-discovering her faith posed the question to me that she acquired from some of her pentacostal friends... i tried to answer but couldn\'t convince her, so i am seeking other opinions: in the gospel of matthew as well as in the Acts of the apostles it suggests that in order to truly receive the holy spirit, one must speak in tongues as evidence after being baptized.
\\" ... And he said unto them, Have ye received the holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, we have not heard whether there be any holy Ghost ... And when Paul laid his hands on them, the holy Ghost fell on them; and they spake in tongues, and prophesied.\\" (Acts 19:2,6).
her question to me was a) why do we have child baptism since b) the child is unable to speak in tongues as evidence of receiving the holy spirit.
thanks for all opinions!
geoff
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